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The Lord of the Rings: The Card Game
Gather your heroes and face the coming darkness!
Moderator: FFGStuartFFG_IanGeckoThe Spaniard Topics: 2431 | Posts: 29636
Basic Question for All you Long-time Veterans of the Game.
Published on 02 February 2013 - 15:17:02
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So a question keeps cropping up at our weekly game night: one of our players keeps insisting that if a card costs 0 resources to play, then it is perfectly acceptable to play such a card in any deck, regardless of sphere matching. For example, he might play a Lore/Tactics deck and then splash in 3 copies of Daeron's Runes (a Lore sphere card that costs 0 to play) and argue that he can play it because it has a cost of 0. I have always been under the impression that regardless of the cost of a card, you had to be able to "sphere match" the card's symbol to one of your heroes in order to put that card into play. Am I right in my interpretation, or is he right? I think I know the answer already, but thank you all for your help, of course, I may be wrong afterall.

Joseph

"In a hole in the ground there lived a Hobbit..."

Page 1 of 1 (2 messages) 1
Reply #1 | Published on 02 February 2013 - 14:55:29
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This one is clearly stated in the manual:

 

"Cards with a cost of zero do not require a resource to be
spent in order to pay their cost, but they do require
at least one hero under that player’s control to have a
resource icon that matches the card’s sphere." (pg 12)
Without Signature
Reply #2 | Published on 02 February 2013 - 15:17:02
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Exactly; sometimes direct evidence is not enough.

"In a hole in the ground there lived a Hobbit..."

Page 1 of 1 (2 messages) 1

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